In the previous section,
we showed that for any real number x, the sequence of numbers:
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approaches a limit as m increases without bound. When x = 1, we call the limit: Euler's number e.
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And we showed that for r and s rational numbers (that is,
) we have the following facts
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From the first fact,
it follows that for ![]()
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so that for rational numbers at least,
has the exponential property: equal ratios for equal changes in r. In
fact, by properties (2) and (4) above, we may identify
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Further, we know
how to approximate
for any real x using semi-geometric series or the Euler sequence. Suppose
we call
:
. Then the following statements can be proved true using somewhat technical
arguments, for all real numbers:
![]()
![]()
![]()
We will not follow
this technical course, however. In this section, we will approach the problem
of defining the exponential function
for all real numbers and exhibiting its properties in a less technical
and surprisingly beautiful way. The approach we will use will recruit what we
know about Riemann integrals and change of variables and will also exhibit a
fundamental interpretation of integrals as a method of estimating area. We will
also learn, of course, how to differentiate this function.
The basic properties of
that we will prove are:

We will then be
justified to write
:
for all
. Such a function "transforms" addition to multiplication, as you
can see from (2) and (3). In itself, this is not so useful. Addition is easier
than multiplication. But an inverse for this function, call it log, (once
we discover how to find it) would satisfy

That is, if
so that
, then
so that
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This would be very
useful for practical calculation. To multiply two numbers x and y,
find the values of
and add those. Then find the number whose log is the result! This
led to the creation of tables of logarithms that greatly simplified the
calculation of products and powers (and so, as you saw, the calculation of compound
interest, amortization schedules, and so on). It also led to the invention of
the slide rule, which led to another "art of approximation."
But for all of these practical applications of the log function, the
theoretical contributions (for example, to analyze the Logarithmic Spiral
in the next part) far outweigh them.
Thus, let's get
to work. We seek a function with properties (1) -- (4). To see that such a function
exists, let us ask what properties the inverse of an "exponential function"
should have. Suppose we have a function
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that is the inverse of an exponential function (a function that gives equal ratios for equal changes). Then we would expect that L would have the inverse property:
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for any ![]()
This means that
if two pairs of positive numbers
have equal ratios, then the differences in their L-values must be the
same. It is clear that if L is such a function, then if K >
0 is arbitrary, the function
will also have this property, and so, since we also want
we replace
if the condition is not satisfied.
So now we want a function
satisfying the two conditions
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and
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It is easy to see
that if we have such a function, then
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so
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Such a function
would provide a table of logarithms by the above formula.
If the function had
an inverse
then
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and if
and we could define
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This is the approach
that we will take. It happens that Riemann integrals, when used to interpret
areas under the graphs of continuous functions, give us just the function
we need.
Riemann integration
is usually first introduced in Calculus as a method for calculating areas and
volumes. This approach has a simple geometric appeal and we will discuss it
now before we apply it to solve our problem.
Suppose we wish to
calculate the area of an ellipse. We will use the earlier picture of an ellipse
with semi-major axis a and semi-minor axis b. We will want to
show that the area is
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This example is chosen
to exercise our change of variable formula for integration.
Let us consider this ellipse then to be the curve (discussed in Conic Sections)
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where we choose
. Now in this representation it is natural to choose parameter interval [-a,a]
and to imagine that the parameter variable is x as it varies from -a
to a.
For each value x of x, where -a £ x £
a, associate the area between the lines x = -a
and x = x
of the ellipse. Call this quantity of area Q(x).
Then what we want to do is calculate Q(a). We know of course that Q(-a)=0.
This is the first step, determining the parameter interval (the domain of integration).
Next, we need an
approximating function
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What should we choose? Consider for each x inŽ [-a,a], the length of the intersection of the line x=x with the ellipse. This is a "tranverse slice" of the ellipse over the parameter value x. We'll see why in a moment.
If we make this choice,
then a little calculating tells us that
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Now if this is to be an approximating function, then
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Is this true for our
approximating function f ?
Consider the following picture (remember, we are allowed to insist that Dx be small).
It is clear that
the area
(the shaded part of the ellipse between points egjd) contains the rectangle
efhg and is likewise contained within the rectangle cdji. The
widths of these latter two rectangles are both Dx.
But the height of efhg is the length of eg which is
,
for our approximating function f. Also, the height of rectangle cdji
is the length of dj, and this is apparently
.
Now
this implies that
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Since f is easily seen to be continuous, we may conclude from the Intermediate
Value Theorem that there is a point
,
such that ![]()
And that's all there
is to it. For this reason, it is apparent that f is a good approximating
function for this area measurement. We know from what was said earlier that
if we construct a partition
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and we choose any points whatsoever,
then the sum (for those points)
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approximates the area of the ellipse.
As we let the mesh
of the partition approach 0 these Riemann sums converge to the number

Which is the area of the ellipse.
Now, let us be more
explicit. The approximating function
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So we may write this area as
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And if we could find an anti-derivative P(x) for
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we could simply evaluate
to get the answer. For that we can use our change of variable formula.
Consider the function
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According to our
formula:
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and we can do the calculation if we can anti-differentiate
.
But we see that the latter expression is
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since
is non-negative on ![]()
We saw that
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and so an anti-derivative for
is
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and the area is
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This fact will be
important later for Newton's deduction. For now it tells us that for area and
volume calculations, it is sometimes very easy to find a (simple) approximating
function, once we choose the variable of integration and identify the "transverse
slice."
Let us derive next
the formula for the volume of a sphere of radius R. We begin again by
recalling that the surface area of a sphere of radius R is
. Now the volume of the sphere is "swept out" by the surface as we
expand the radius uniformly.
Thus the quantity
Q(x) is the volume of the sphere of radius x with center at the
origin, just as in the previous case. We have determined that our parameter
is the radius x and it varies in the interval
. What is our approximating function?
We let that be the
surface area of this sphere of radius x. If a < b are two parameter
values, we want to approximate
. Now it is fairly easy to see (at least intuitively) that
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when a is close to b. This indicates that the continuous function of x,
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is a transverse approximating function for this problem. That is because (by
the Intermediate Value Theorem) we are guaranteed that for some
.
That is, there is at least one
such that
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That being the case,
our job again is to calculate the limit of Riemann Sums
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This limit is what we have called

And we know that
the function Q(x) is an antiderivative of
and so, we observe that another anti-derivative of f(x) is
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Thus, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus,
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is the volume of the sphere of radius R.
Natural logarithms as area integrals
Returning to logarithms,
we claimed that a certain area integral would give us a function
that has the "inverse" property of exponentials. It gives equal changes
for equal ratios:
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for any ![]()
This means that
if two pairs of positive numbers
have equal ratios, then the differences in their L-values must be the
same. We will show that the function L will satisfy conditions (1) --
(4) below.

To this end, consider
the function
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This function is continuous and its graph looks like:
Now consider for
each ![]()
(1) if
,
the area of the region from the line
to the line
and between the graph and the t-axis
(2) if
,
the negative of area of the region from the line
to the line
and between the graph and the t-axis
We will call this
function
and according to our observations just above, if our variable of integration
for measuring if
is also if
then if
gives a transverse slice to the area, so that, we may write
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(By convention, if
the integral is the negative of the area, that is
).
Obviously,
. We will show next that if c > 0 then
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This means that
for ![]()
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These two facts
will guarantee that this
is a "logarithm" function satisfying conditions (2) and (3) above.
Before we give the proof (which follows easily from a change of variable) , let us explore this surprising fact.
Exploration: Areas and logarithms
The control panel
on this page shows two graph2D windows and a few buttons:
You may approximate
the integral
for
on the interval
by entering the numbers x and y in the fields A = and B
=. For example, let us approximate the integral on
. Enter the numbers in the fields:
Then press the button below that field:
You will see the
window dimensions change to accommodate the interval, and then an approximating
Riemann sum will be drawn and summed up.
It reports that
this approximation is 1.3859044586. It is drawn with 30 rectangles. You may control
the number of rectangles drawn (up to 100) by changing the value on the slider
before pressing Sum for [ A, B].
On the other hand,
if you would like to do the integration directly using the MathScript Integrate()
function, press Integral for [ A, B]
and you will see: 1.3862950642. The "exact" result is only slightly larger.
Now the point of
the exercise is to compare this Riemann sum or integral with the one obtained
with endpoints on the interval
for c some positive number.
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The points
will have the same ratio as
do, and so our claim is that the integrals will be the same. Now to do the experiment,
choose a factor c. Here, we will choose 2. Enter that factor in the C
= field under the right hand graph2D.
When you press
the button:
You will see the Riemann sum on [1, 4] in yellow on the right.
Both the sums and the integrals themselves are equal, but they are different from each other. This illustrates the "equal ratios give equal changes" for our area function L.
Now let us prove
the result.
Theorem 1: If c > 0 then
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. This means that for ![]()
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Proof: Consider the change of variable
by
. The change of variable formula says, for approximation formula
,
that
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The proof was so
simple that this hardly deserves to be called a theorem, except for its remarkable
consequences.
First of all, properties (2) and (3) of L are now obvious as we showed earlier,
![]()
What about the
statement:
![]()
Since
,
we see that it is an anti-derivative for the approximating function
.
Therefore L is differentiable, and
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Since this derivative is positive, the Mean value theorem guarantees that
L is 1-1, that is, if
then
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The graph of the
function L looks like:
As we will soon
see, it is the reflection about the line
of the graph of the function
. In any case, we can see that it is rising as x increases, and as x
approaches 0, it falls sharply. But how do we know that the function is onto
?
That is an interesting
question. Suppose that M is a positive integer. It is not too difficult
to see from the definition of L as an area function that
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Here it is illustrated
for M = 10.
Now the series
of numbers
is called the "harmonic series". It has the property that it "goes
to infinity." In particular, for any positive integer K, there is
a term in the sequence such that
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The proof is easy.
Notice that
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and so on. It follows that
for any positive integer K when M is sufficiently large. Since
L is differentiable, it is continuous, and so whenever y > 0
is a positive number, one can solve the equation
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Now it is not difficult
to see from the fact that the ratio of
is the same as the ratio of 1 to x, that
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So since
it follows (for positive x) that
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This shows that
for all real y, one can solve the equation
.
So
.
We have one thing
left to show. And that is property:
. This latter fact relates the natural logarithm function that we have just
defined, with the natural exponential function
whose exponential properties we have so far only proved for rational
r.
Notice that when
the exploration opens, we have set A = 1 and B = e If you set
it back to those values and press Integral for [A, B], you will see
The "exact"
integral is equal to 1 to 1 place in 1,000,000. Experiment with powers of e
, and so on.
Now of course,
this exploration is not a proof. For that, we must take a new kind of limit.
Theorem 2: ![]()
Proof: Recall that Euler's number e is defined as a limit.
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We will calculate
for each positive integer m,
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Since the function L is continuous, and the Euler sequence does converge, we know that
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Thus, let us evaluate
.
From the property
it is obvious that
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Now the area equal to
is between the numbers
as a sketch of the graph will show. Therefore
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We see that as
![]()
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Therefore,
.
We are almost finished.
We now define
to be the inverse of
. We now know that for all real numbers
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And we may write colloquially,
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We have one final
observation to make. Another amazing one! What is the derivative
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We know by the
(deep) inverse function theorem that this derivative exists. And the chain rule
tells us what it is. Recall that
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Therefore
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So it follows that since ![]()
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so
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The natural exponential
function
is equal to its derivative!